Self Assessment-I Part 1, Correct Answers

1.How much NaCl must be added to the following prescription to make it isotonic?

Rx

Benzocaine HCl   1%

Bromobutanol     0.5%

Boric acid------sufficient quantities

Purified water------60 ml

NaCl equalent of Benzocaine-----0.2

NaCl equalent of Bromobutanol—0.24

NaCl equalent of Boric acid--------0.52

A.0.54 g

B.0.34g

C.0.66g

D.011g

E.0.23g

2.How many mEq of magnesium sulfate are represented in 1 g anhydrous magnesium sulfate? (M.wt of MgSO4 =120)

A.16.6 mEq

B. 20.5 mEq

C.60 mEq

D. 32 mEa

E.64.5 mEq

3. How much lidocaine is present in a 1:1000, 30 ml solution of lidocaine ?

A.30mg

B.30gm

C. 30mg

D. 3 gm

E.3mg 

Ans: (a) 1 : 1000 is expressed by 1 gm of lidocaine in 1000ml of solution, therefore 30mlsolution of lidocaine will present in = 30/1000 = 0.03 gram (30mg) lidocaine.

4. If 60 gram of 1% Hydrocortisone is mixed with 80 gram of 2.5% Hydrocortisone,

what is the % w/w of hydrocortisone in final mixture ?

A.2.25 %

B. 3.15 %

C. 1.85 %

D. 4.35 %

E..2.60%

Ans: (c) The content of hydrocortisone is final mixture can be calculated by

60 gm of 1% Hydrocortisone = 0.6 gm

80 gm of 2.5% Hydrocortisone = 2.0 gm

140 gm of Hydrocortisone = 2.6 gm

% of Hydrocortisone in final mixture 2.6 x100   = 1.85%

                                                            140

5.What is the half-life of drug that has rate constant 0.067 days ^-1 ? [ First order kinetic]

A.12.11 days

B. 5.56 days

C.10.31 days

D.0.67 days

E. 3.25 days

Ans: (C)  t1/2 = 0.693 / k

k = 0.693 /t1/2

0.693 / 0.067 days-

= 10.31 days

5-C

6.What is a rate of constant of heparin in first order kinetic if 50 units/cc of heparin

remains in solution after 10 days ? [ Initial concentration of heparin was 5000 units/cc]

A.2.1 day^-1

B. 0.5 day^-1

C. 0.46 day^-1

D.10 days^-1

E. 1.23 day-1

6-

Ans (c) 0.46 day -1

7.An adult recommended dose of drug is 5mg/kg/day, how many milligrams of drug is

required every four hours ? [ patient weight =110 lbs]

A.41.66 mg  

B.20.34 mg  

C.12.53 mg

D.50.05 mg

E.49.34 mg

7-A

Ans (a)Patient weight in kg = 150 = 50 kg

                                                  2.2

A normal recommended dose of drug per day is = 5 x 50 = 250mg per day.

Patient is taking this dose in 6 divided doses, therefore every 4 hours dose of drug would be = 250mg/ 6

= 41.66mg every 4-hour.

8- Septra DS #20: i po BID x 10 days:Your label directions:
A- Take 1 tablet twice daily for 10 days as needed

B-  Take 1 tablet twice daily for 10 days
C-  Take 1 tablet twice daily for 10 days may repeat every 20 minutes

D-  Take 1 tablet twice daily for 10 days may repeat every 20 minutes if pain persist

E-  Take 1 tablet twice daily for 10 days maximum 20 doses 

9- Colchicine is used as anti-inflammatory agent in the acute treatment of:

a) Osteoporosis

b) Rheumatoid arthritis

c) Osteomyelites

d) Gout

e) Pressure atrophy

9-D

10- The use of indomethacin in gout treatment:

a) Inhibit the acute gout arthritis inflammation by inhibition of prostaglandin formation

b) Inhibits tubulin synthesis

c) Accelerate renal excretion of uric acid

d) Inhibit uric acid synthesis

e) Inhibit the reabsorption of uric acid by the kidney

10-A

11- Which of the following prostaglandin is a potent mediator or asthma attacks:

a) PGI

b) PGE2

c) PGD2

d) PGF2

e) PGI2

11-C

Comments: PGD2 is a potent mediator of asthma attacks, while prostaglandin PGF2 and PGI2 are brochoprotective.

12- Goals of gout treatment may include:

I- Reduce inflammation during acute attacks

II- Accelerate renal excretion of uric acid

III- Reduce the conversion of purine to uric acid

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

12-E

13- Characteristics of GOUT, a group of disorders of purine and pyrimidine metabolism may include:

I- Hereditary metabolite disease marked by inflammation of the joints

II- The joint inflammation is caused by precipitation of uric acid crystals

III- It is a type osteoporosis

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

13-C

14- Succimer (Chemet) is indicated for the treatment of:

A.Fe

B.Pb

C.Mg

D.Hg

E.Au

14-C

15- Use of estrogen in osteoporosis:

I- Estrogen enhance calcium retention and retard bone loss

II- Estrogen is useful in treat osteoporosis associated to menopause

III- Estrogen is not effective at increasing bone mass that has already been lost.

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

15-E

16- Osteoporosis is mainly characterized by:

a) Loss of joint movements

b) Loss of bone mass

c) Imbalance of uric acid

d) Hormonal imbalance

e) All are correct

16-B

17- Antimalarial drug used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis as DMRA-Disease-Modifying Antirheumatic Drug

a) Chloroquine

b) Quinine

c) Sulfasalazine

d) Hydroxycloroquine

e) Primaquine

18- Celecoxib should be carefully prescribed to the patient hypersensitive to the following class of drug.

A-Tetracyclines

B-Quinolones

C-Sulphonamide

D-Macrolide

E-Metronidazole

19- Correct administration of Penicillamine in the treatment of rheumatois arthritis include:

a) With meals

b) In emptying stomach

c) With plenty of water

d) With orange juice

e) Before bedtime

19-B

20- Which of the following agents is the best choice of treatment for an asthma patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is considered to have aspirin sensitivity?

a) Ibuprofen

b) Acetaminophen

c) Gold therapy

d) Azathioprine

e) Cyclophosphamide

21- MAOI’s should be carefully used with:

I.Trazodone

II.Levodopa

III.Methylphenidate

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

21-E

Comments: Concurrent used of trazodone and MAOI’s ------Serotinin syndrome

Levodopa with MAOI’s ------severe hypertensive crisis—discontibue 2-4 weeks before initiating therapy with levodopa.

Methyllphenidate and MAOI’s -----Potentiate CNS stimulant effect------should not administer within 14 days of MAOI’s

22- Calcium channel blocker that may cause myocardial infarction as side effect include:

I- Diltiazen

II- Verapamil

III- Nifedipine

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

23- Bradycardia and orthostatic hypotension are characteristic side effects of:

I- Guanabenz

II- Hydralazine

III- Vasodilators

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

24- An important advantage of using dopamine in cardiac shock may include:

a) It will not cross BBB and cause CNS effect

b) It has no effect on α and β-receptors

c) It produces dose-dependent increasing cardiac output and renal perfusion

d) It will not increase blood pressure

e) It can be given orally

25- Which of the following diuretics may shows an uricosuric activity?

a) Spirolactone

b) Furosemide

c) Chlortalidone

d) Triamterene

e) Chlorothiazide

26- Ibutilide is an antiarrthymic drug, classified as:

I.. Class I antiarrthymic drug

II. Class II antiarrthymic drug

III. Class III antiarrthymic drug

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

27- The use of sildenafil together with atenolol may result in:

I- Tremor

II- Hypotension

III- Visual disturbance

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

28- A diabetic patient suffering from hypertension is having enalapril, however he is complaining from severe dry cough that we can associated as a side effect of the enalapril. Which would be the best choice for changing this medication?

a) Ramipril

b) Losartan

c) Amlodipine

d) Indapamide

e) Captopril

29- Drug of choice when treating hypertension in a diabetic patient may include:

a) ACE inhibitors

b) β-Blockers

c) Calcium Channel Blockers

d) Digitalis

e) Nitrates

30- Angina, a cardiovascular complication characterized by the oxygen sufficiency my be aggravated by all of the following, EXCEPT:

a) Exercise

b) Hot places

c) Cold places

d) Anger

e) Over weight

31- Drugs used in the treatment of hypertension associated with renal failure may include:

I- Hydralazine

II- Furosemide

III- Atenolol

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

32- Digitalis is contra indicated in the treatment of:

a) Myocardial infarction

b) Coronary Heart Diseases

c) CHF

d) Arrhythmias

e) Venous congestion

33- Systemic lupus or erythromatus lupus may be a side effect of:

a) Propanolol

b) Digoxin

c) Cyclophosphamide

d) Hydralazine

e) Hydroxazine

34- Which best describe the proprieties of labetolol:

a) β-blocker

b) α-blocker

c) β1 and α-blocker

d) β non selective and α-blocker

e) β2-blocker

35- Correct statements regarding blood pressure may include:

I- Systolic pressure is the highest arterial pressure during a cardiac cycle.

II- Diastolic pressure is the lowest arterial pressure during a cardiac cycle

III- Diastolic pressure is crucial in verifying if a person suffers of high blood pressure

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

36- Cholesterol:

I- VLDL-Very Low Density Lipoproteins are formed in the liver

II- LDL-Low Density Lipoproteins are formed from VLDL and carry LDL cholesterol that is the “bad cholesterol”

III- HDL-High Density Lipoproteins are formed in the liver and small intestine. They carry HDL cholesterol that is the “good cholesterol”

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

37- Abnormal levels of lipids can cause all of the following, EXCEPT:

a) Atheroscherosis

b) Heart attack

c) Pancreatitis

d) Bone dystrophy

e) Stroke

38- Lipid lowering group of drugs include all of the following, EXCEPT:

a) Bile acid binders

b) Fibric acid derivatives

c) Angiotensin inhibitors

d) Lipoprotein synthesis inhibitors

e) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

39- Niacin mechanism of action as lipoprotein synthesis inhibitor is characterized by:

a) Decrease the production rate of VLDL that synthesizes LDL

b) Block the synthesis of cholesterol

c) Decrease lipoproteins production by increasing the breakdown of lipids

d) Remove VLDL from bloodstream

e) Binds to bile acids in the intestine

40- Lipid lowering drug that binds to bile acids in the intestine causing the acids to be excreted include:

a) Clofibrate

b) Cholestyramine

c) Niacin

d) Genfibrozil

e) Atorvastatin

41- The safest lipid lowering drug that may be used in pregnancy include:

a) Pravastatin

b) Genfibrozil

c) Cholestyramine

d) Sinvastatin

e) Clofibrate

42- Absorbable agents successfully used in patients with high cholesterol include:

I- Grapefruit juice

II- Nicotinic acid

III- Fish oil

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

43- Digoxin may be used in dysrhythmias, however CANNOT be used in one specific type of dysrhythmias that is:

a) Atrial tachycardia

b) Ventricular tachycardia

c) Paroxysmal tachycardia

d) Atrial fibrillation

e) Flutter

44- Class I sodium channel blocker antidysrhythmic agents include all of the following, EXCEPT:

a) Quinidine

b) Lidocaine

c) Phenytoin

d) Propafenone

e) Amiodarone

45- Nifedipine (procardia) indicated for the treatment of :

A.Diabetes

B.Gout

C.Hypertension

D.Hyperuricemia

E.Hypernatremia

46- Diuretic that act in the loop of henle include:

a) Acetazolamide

b) Hydroclorothiazide

c) Furosemide

d) Spirolactone

e) Chlortalidone

47- All the following diuretics may cause metabolic acidosis, EXCEPT:

a) Hydroclorothiazide

b) Acetozalamide

c) Spirolactone

d) Amiloride

e) Triametrene

48- Diuretic with pteridine and pyrazine hererocycles rings used in the treatment of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus caused by lithium:

a) Spirolactone

b) Amiloride

c) Indapamide

d) Furosemide

e) Acetazolamide

49- Best diuretic used in the adjunct treatment of hepatic cirrhosis and renal diseases include:

a) Spirolactone

b) Amiloride

c) Indapamide

d) Furosemide

e) Acetazolamide

50- Amikacin is classified in the aminoglycoside group of antibiotics: True statement about this drug:

I.It is indicated for the treatment of gram negative bacterial infection

II.The principle side effect of this drug is renal ototoxicity.

III.The trough concentration of amikacin must be less than 10mg/ml

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

51- Antihypertensive drug most likely to cause syncope effect or first-dose effect:

a) Prazosin

b) Clonidine

c) Minoxidil

d) Guanabenz

e) Labetolol

52- Antihypertensive α-blocker used in BPH-Benign Prostate Hypertrophy:

a) Prazosin

b) Terazosin

c) Doxazosin

d) Hydralazine

e) Minoxidil

53- Drug used in the treatment of hypertension that may cause hemolytic anemia.

a) Clonidine

b) Guanabenz

c) Thiazides

d) Atenolol

e) Methyldopa

54- One of the most safe antihypertensive drugs used in pregnancy is:

a) Metoprolol

b) Captopril

c) Sodium nitroprusside

d) Methyldopa

e) Prazosin

55- What are the class of drugs used in prophylactic treatment of deep vein thrombosis following knee replacement surgery.

A-Warfarin

B-Heparin

C-LMWH (Low Molecular Weight Heparins)

D-Streptokinase

E.Altreptase

56- All of the following may be examples of calcium channel blocker, EXCEPT:

a) Enalapril

b) Amlodipino

c) Nifedipeno

d) Diltiazen

e) Verapamil

57- First line treatment in mild to moderate CHF-Congestive Heart failure include:

a) β-Blockers + diuretics

b) Glycosides + ACE inhibitors

c) Calcium channel blockers

d) Vasodilators

e) Nitrates

58- Drug used in cardiovascular complications which metabolism produce cyanide:

a) Hydralazine

b) Nitrates

c) Nitroglycerine

d) Isosorbid

e) Nitroprusside

59- Nitrates used in cardiovascular complications mainly in CHF induce the formation of:

a) Nitric oxide

b) Cyanide

c) Zinc oxide

d) Nicotinic acid

e) Nalidixic acid

60- Angina is a type of:

a) Congestive heart failure disease

b) Hypertension disease

c) Ischemic disease

d) Atherosclerosis disease

e) Dysrhytmiac disease

61- Bupropion (Zyban) is a smoking deterrent and aids to stop smoking. The principle side effect is seizures, this should be carefully prescribed in the following condition patient.

I-Aneroxia nervosa

II-Bulimia

III.Depression

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

62- All are examples of low molecular weigh heparins, EXCEPT:

a) Orgaron

b) Enoxaparin

c) Dalteparin

d) Fragmin

e) Heparin

63- Which of the following β-agonist drugs has no effect in α-agonists receptors?

a) Isoproterenol

b) Dopamine

c) Norepinephrine

d) Epinephrine

e) Clonidine

64- Carbidopa is an adjunct treatment with levodopa for the treatment of Parkinsonism, what are the true statement.

I-Carbidopa blocks the conversion of levodopa

II. Carbidopa functions on central system

III.Carbidopa functions on peripheral systmem

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

65- Predominant sympathetic adrenergic receptor in the heart may include:

a) α-receptors

b) β-receptors

c) Mu receptors

d) M1-receptors

e) D3-receptors

66- Which of the following hormone may stimulates the release of TSH-Thyroid Stimulating Hormones:

a) ADH

b) LFH

c) TRH

d) LH

e) Aldosterone

67- What DEIODINATION means?

a) The soma of thyrosyl residues with thyroglobulin proteolysis

b) The stimulation of T3 and T4 formation

c) The production of iodine by the thyroid gland

d) The degradation of thyroid hormones that are eliminated by feces and urine.

e) The degradation of iodine

68- Hypothyroidism is due to hypofunction of thyroid gland. Drug(s) used in hypothyroidism treatment may include:

I- Levothyroxin

II- Liiothyroxin

III-Propylthyiuracil

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

69- Hyperthyroidism is characterized by high levels of thyroid hormones. Example(s) of drugs used in hyperthyroidism treatment may include:

I- Propanolol

II- Methimazole

III-Propylthyiuracil

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

70- Characteristic symptoms of hypothyroidism may include all of the following, EXCEPT:

a) Sensitivity to cold

b) Heat intolerance

c) Lethargy

d) Constipation

e) Weight gain

71- Autoimmune Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus is also known as:

I-  Diabetes Type I

II- Diabetes insipidus

III- Diabetes Type II

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

72- Example of antidiabetic agent that reduces glucogeneogenesis and increase glucose utilization may include:

a) Glyburine

b) Chlorpropamide

c) Repaglinide

d) Metformin

e) Acarbose

73- Glyburine is an antidiabetic agent characterized by which of the following mechanism of action?

a) Decrease the absorption of carbohydrates thus decreasing postprandial rise of glucose

b) Reduces glucogeneogenesis and increase glucose utilization

c) Increase peripheral insulin sensitivity

d) Stimulates the release of insulin

e) Reduce gluconeogenesis only

74- Glyburine and metformin, oral antidiabetic agents are often prescribed together in the treatment of type II diabetes mellitus due to their:

a) Antagonist effect

b) Addition effect

c) Synergistic effect

d) Tolerance

e) Competitive effect

75- Which of the following statements is/are true regarding regular insulin:

I- It is a suspension

II- It may be administrated either SC or IV

III- It is longer acting than lispro insulin

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

76- Which of the following agents may have the same therapeutic indication as propyltiuracil does?

a) Danazol

b) Levothyroxine

c) Azathioprine

d) Omeprazole

e) Methimazole

77- Common or regular diarrhea may best be treated by the administration of:

I- Loperamide

II- Aluminum hydroxide

III- Bismuth subsalicylate

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

78- Antidiarrheal agent that appears to be bactericidal to H. pylori being useful in the treatment of duodenal ulcers and gastric ulcers associated with H. pylori:

a) Bismuth subsalicylate

b) Loperamide

c) Docusate sodium

d) Psyllium

e) Milk of magnesium

79- Drug(s) used for the short-term treatment of gastro esophageal reflux and peptic ulcer diseases may include which of the following?

I- H2 receptors antagonists

II- Proton pump inhibitors

III- Corticosteroids

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

80- One of the most frequent side effect seen with SULCRAFATE therapy may include:

a) Diarrhea

b) Constipation

c) Edema

d) Cramps

e) Vomiting

81- Metoclopramide can act as effective agent in the management of many different conditions. Some characteristics of metoclopramide include:

I- It increases the rate of gastric emptying

II- It has both peripheral and central effect

III- It can induce Parkinson’s disease

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

82- Drug of choice in treating NSAIDs-induced ulceration may include:

a) Ranitidine

b) Omeprazole

c) Misoprostol

d) Sulcrafate

e) Aluminium hydroxide

83- A 5-Aminosalicylate active metabolite drug used in the treatment of Crohn’s disease:

a) Lansoprazole

b) Famotidine

c) Misoprostol

d) Sulfasalazine

e) Omeprazole

84- Active metabolite of sulfasalazine may include:

a) Acid salicylic acid

b) Salicilyc acid

c) Salicylates

d) Aminosalicylate

e) 5-Aminosalicylate

85- Sulfasalazine, a 5-Aminosalicylate active metabolite drug suffer its metabolism mainly where?

a) Colon

b) Stomach

c) Small intestine

d) Duodenum

e) Esophagus

86- Lipase inhibitor used to treat obesity may include:

a) Diethylpropiom

b) Orlistat

c) Benzphetamine

d) Mazindol

e) Phenylpropanolamine

87- Which of the following drugs are available in a transdermal form for the prevention of motion sickness?

a) Metoclopramide

b) Granisetron

c) Ondasetron

d) Scopolamine

e) Diphenhydramine

88- Sinvastatin used in hypercholesteramia is characterized by which of the following mechanism of action?

a) Inhibiting xanthine oxidase

b) Inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase

c) Inhibit acetylcholinesterase

d) Acting as a bile sequestrant

e) Interfering with fat absorption from GI

89- Lactulose is an osmotic laxative agent that may be used to treat:

I- Constipation

II- Portal-systemic encepalopathy

III- Renal tubular necrosis

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

90- The primary function of simethicone used in antacid products is to act as:

a) Suspending agent

b) Adsorbent

c) Buffer

d) Antiflatulant

e) Flavoring agent

91- The CNS – Central Nervous System is mainly constituted of:

I- Brain

II- Spinal cord

III- Thoracic Lumbar

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

92- All the following group of drugs have direct action on CNS, EXCEPT:

a) Cardiotonics

b) Analgesics

c) Anesthetics

d) Antidepressives

e) Antipsychotics

93- All of the following are important neurotransmitters, EXCEPT:

a) Acetylcholine

b) Dopamine

c) Norepinephrine

d) Muscarinic-M1

e) Serotonin

94- Catecholamines neurotransmitter may include:

I- Dopamine

II- Norepinephrine

III- Epinephrine

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

95- Agents well known as precursor of dopamine include:

a) Epinephrine

b) Tyrosine

c) Tyramine

d) Norepinephrine

e) Thiamine

96- Reaction that converts norepinephrine to epinephrine is normally called:

a) Chatecholinization

b) Methylation

c) Oxidation

d) Deamination

e) Glutathione conjugation

97- Neurotransmitter with an indole group in its structure include:

a) Serotonin

b) Acetylcholine

c) Histamine

d) Dopamine

e) PABA

98- Example of amino acid neurotransmitter may include:

a) Tyrosine

b) Thiamine

c) Histamine

d) Glycine

e) Glutamate

99- Examples of cholinergic neuroreceptors may include:

I- Muscarinic receptors

II- Nicotinic receptors

III- Serotoninergic receptors

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

100- The major dopaminergic receptor that controls the extrapyramidal system include:

a) D1

b) D2

c) D3

d) D4

e) D5

101- Which of the following is an example of pure narcotic antagonist?

a) Pentazocine

b) Butorphanol

c) Naltrexone

d) Naloxone

e) C and D are pure narcotic antagonists

102- Example of opioid used in the treatment of alcoholism include:

a) Morphine

b) Naloxone

c) Hydrocodone

d) Naltrexone

e) Codein

103- Opioid widely used during labor due to its less liability to induce neonate respiratory depression include:

a) Meperidine

b) Morphine

c) Methadone

d) Fentanyl

e) Oxycodone

104- Intense pruritus and vasodilatation are side effects of classic opioids due to stimulation and release of:

a) Adrenaline

b) Histamine

c) Serotonine

d) Mu receptors

e) Histidine

105- Examples of neurotransmitters used by barbiturates drugs include:

I- Benzodiazepinics neurotransmitters

II- GABA

III- Glycine  neurotransmitters

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

106- Primidone is a prodrug that when biotransformed become:

a) Carbamazepine

b) Risperidone

c) Phenobarbital

d) Lorazepan

e) Phenytoin

107- MAO-Monoamine Oxidase inhibitor increases the bioavailability of biogenic amines and are mainly used to treat depression. A classic example of MAO is:

a) Doxepine

b) Reserpine

c) Venlafaxine

d) Desipramine

e) Phenelzine

108- Example of less sedating TCAs-Tricyclic Antidepressants include:

a) Desipramine

b) Clomipramine

c) Amitriptiline

d) Imipramine

e) Nortriptiline

109- Tricyclic antidepressant with effect in serotonin system used to treat maniac compulsive disorders include:

a) Lithium

b) Phenelzine

c) Clomipramine

d) Desipramine

e) Nortriptiline

110- Which of the following is a wrong statement regarding lithium?

a) Most effective psychiatric medication used to treat bipolar depression

b) Interfere with trans membrane Na exchange

c) Takes 2 to 3 weeks to start to show pharmacological effect

d) Weight gain is a side effect of lithium therapy

e) Blood levels should be closely monitored during treatment

111- Antipsychotic drugs are effective in treating all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:

a) Bizarre behavior

b) Dilutions and hallucinations

c) Schizophrenia

d) Parkinson’s disease.

e) Alzheimer’s disease

112- Intal-Sodium cromoglycate is characterized by which of the following statements?

I- Non-steroidal drug with anti-inflammatory proprieties

II- They can be used in prophylaxis of asthma and allergic rhinitis

III Used in asthma only

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

113- Drug of choice in the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may include:

a) Salbutamol

b) Ipratropium

c) Salmereol

d) Sodium cromoglycate

e) Fluticasone

114- Chronic progressive lower airway destruction causing reduced pulmonary inspiration and expiratory capacity is known as:

a) Asthma

b) Bronchitis

c) GERD

d) COPD

e) CHF

115- Asthma is a condition of respiratory tract that may be aggravated by:

a) Allergens

b) Cold weather

c) Execise

d) Emotion

e) All are correct

116- Which of the following is considered as the best treatment of asthma?

a) β2-agonists

b) β-Blockers

c) α-agonists

d) Anticholinergic drugs

e) Cholinergic drugs

117- Which of the following agents or combinations may be appropriated to treat severe intermittent asthma?

a) High doses of inhaled corticosteroid

b) Long acting β2-agonists

c) Short acting β2-agonists

d) Oral corticosteroids

e) Combination of all the above medication

118- Examples of drug(s) that may precipitate asthma include all of the following, EXCEPT:

a) Aspirin

b) β-Blockers

c) Ipratropium

d) NSAIDs

e) Cholinergic drugs

119- All of the following are pathophysiologic characteristics of asthma, EXCEPT:

a) Airway obstruction and inflammation

b) Destructive changes in the alveolar walls

c) Thickened smooth muscle of airway

d) Mucosal edema

e) Narrowed lumen of airway

120- The MOST well known characteristic symptom of asthma include:

a) Wheezing

b) Mucosal edema

c) Cough

d) Chest tightness

e) Tachycardia

121- Drug considered as the drug of choice in a specific asthma emergency treatment include:

a) Salmeterol

b) Adrenaline

c) Albuterol

d) Cortisone

e) Zafirlukst

122- Salbutamol is short acting β2-agonists that may be used in the treatment of which of the following asthma type?

a) Mild asthma

b) Emergency asthma

c) Severe intermittent asthma

d) Moderate asthma

e) All kind of asthma

123- All are correct concerning the action of corticosteroids in asthma status, EXCEPT:

a) Suppress the inflammatory response

b) Decrease production of inflammatory mediators

c) Decrease airway responsiveness to inflammation

d) Relieve brochocontriction

e) Increase β-agonist receptors response

124- All are examples of corticosteroids inhalers used in asthma, EXCEPT:

a) Beclometasone

b) Sodium cromoglycate

c) Flunisolide

d) Fluticasone

e) Budesonide

125- All are examples of drugs used in the treatment of bronchoconstriction, EXCEPT:

a) β2-agonists

b) Anticholinergic

c) Methyl xanthenes

d) Xanthine oxidase inhibitors

e) Leukotriene modifiers

126- Best drug used in the prevention of exercise-induced asthma may include:

a) Long acting β2-agonists

b) Short acting β2-agonists

c) Anticholinergics

d) Leukotriene modifiers

e) Corticoids

127- All are β2-agonists used as brochodilators in the treatment of bronchospasm, EXCEPT:

a) Albuterol

b) Salmeterol

c) Terbutaline

d) Pindolol

e) Levalbuterol

128- Example of methyl xanthine used in the treatment of respiratory complications include:

a) Theophyllin

b) Terbutaline

c) Ipratropium

d) Zafirlukast

e) Salmeterol

129- Agents considered as precursor of leukotriene include:

a) Tyrosine

b) Cyanide

c) Arachidonic acid

d) Prostaglandins

e) Histamine

130- Indication of leukotrienes modifiers in the treatment of asthma includes which of the following?

I- Acute treatment

II- Prophylaxis

III- Chronic treatment

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

131- Drug known as the new relative cromolyn like drug include:

a) Cromolyn sodium

b) Cromoglycanate sodium

c) Cromolyin disodium

d) Disodium cromoglycanate

e) Nedocromil sodium

132-What are the agents commonly found in sinusitis?

I-S. Pneumoniae

II-H. Influenza

III-Pseudomonas Aeroginosa

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

133- E. Coli is the most common agent in UTI it can be classified as:

a) Bacillo

b) Cocci

c) Spiroquete

d) Vibrio

e) Coccobacilli

134- Which of the following antibacterial will not be effective against gram-negative bacteria?

a) Ofloxacine

b) Penicillin V

c) Ciprofloxacine

d) Tetracycline

e) Clarithromycin

135- Which is/are correct about staphylococcus?

I- Most of the penicillins do not work properly in treating staphylococcus

II- Staphylococcus alter the effect of ampicillins

III-Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus aureus is treated by vancomycin

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

136- Which of the following condition is/are characteristics of schistosomiasis?

I- Cirrhoses of liver

II- Jaundice

III- Bleeding

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

137- Granulomatus is due to:

a) Mycobacterium infection

b) Plasmodium infection

c) Staphylococcus infection

d) Streptococcus infection

e) Salmonella infection

138- Which of the following is the agent causative of chancre?

a) Plamodium vivax

b) Treponema paladium

c) Staphylococcus aureus

d) Streptococcus viridians

d) Mycobacterium

139- All of the following are bacterial infection, EXCEPT:

a) Antibiotic associated colitis

b) Impetigo

c) Lyme disease

d) Rubella

e) Cellulites

140- Which of the following is the agent causative of diphtheria?

a) Plasmodium

b) Vibrio

c) Corynebacterium

d) Shigela

e) Neisseria

141- Yersenia is the agent causative of which of the following diseases?

a) Schistosomiasis

b) Chancre

c) Diphtheria

d) Plague

e) Necrosting fasciitis

142- Which of the following organism contain taechoic acid on its cell wall?

a) Salmonela

b) Steptococcus

c) Haemophilus

d) Neisseria

e) Chlamydia

143- Which of the following organisms is NOT sexually transmitted

a) Neisseria gonorrhea

b) Treponema palladium

c) Molluscum contagious

d) Staphylococcus aureus

e) Clamydia trachomatus

144- Which of the following organisms can be transferred from mother to her babies during labor?

a) Neisseria gonorrhea

b) Treponema palladium

c) Molluscum contagious

d) Chlamydia trachomatus

e) All of the above

145- Which of the following organism may cause gas gangrene?

a) Clostridium perfringenes

b) Borelia burgdorferi

c) Bacteroids

d) Clostridium tetani

e) Fusobacterium

146- Staphylococcus aureus is the major agent causative of which of the following disease?

a) Travel’s diarrhea

b) Encephalites

c) Nosocomial infections

d) Conjunctivitis in new borne babies

e) Sinusitis

147. The emulsion instability problem, when dispersed oil droplets merge and rise to the top of an o/w emulsion or settle to the bottom in w/o emulsions, described as:

A-Breaking

B-Cracking

C-Coalescence

D-Creaming

E-Phase inversion

148.What is the HLB value of a surfactant system composed of 20 g Span 20 (HLB = 8.6) and 5 g Tween 21 (HLB = 13.3)?

A-18

B-9

C-4

D-5

E-6

149. SHEAR FORCE is employed for a viscometry experiment. The following statements are true about shear force:

I.Under thixotropic conditions shear force, the structure breaks down and fluidity increases. e.g., gel-sol transformation.

II. Thixotropy-Gel to sol transformation

III.Antithixotropy: occurs when apparent viscosity of the system continues to decrease with continued application of shear up to some equilibrium.

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

149-C

Comments: Antithixotropy: occurs when apparent viscosity of the system continues to increase with continued application of shear up to some equilibrium.

150. Surfactants may be predominantly hydrophilic (water - loving) or lipophilic (oil - loving) or reasonably well balanced between these two extremes.

A.Anionic

B.Cationinc

C.Nonionic

D.Ampiphilic

E.Amphiprotic